Sample PMP Questions

1. The PMBok Guide is an example of which of the following ?

A) A project management methodology.
B) A standard.
C) A regulation.
D) A university textbook.


2. What are scope, quality, schedule, budget,resources ,and risks referred to as collectively ?

A) The six core knowledge areas.
B) Project standards.
C) Project phases.
D) Competing project constraints.


3. You are a project manager and you have been recently assigned a highly strategic project. This project is highly visible and sponsored directly by the Board of Directors who have decided that you need to have maximum control over all project resources.What is the best organization type to use in this scenario ?

A) Weak Matrix
B) Tight Matrix
C) Projectized
D) Functional Matrix


4. You work in a strong matrix organisation. Which of the following is not part of your responsibility as a project manager ?

A) Lead the weekly team meetings .
B) Participate in scope definition.
C) Respond to questions from your sponsor (The Board of Directors )
D) Leading the annual performance review of your project team members .


5. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT for which one?

A) Programs are groups of related projects.
B) Project life cycles are collections of sequential and occasionally overlapping project phases.
C) A project may or may not be part of a program.
D) Portfolios are collections of interdependent projects and programs


6. Which process group focusses on completing the requirements of the project ?

A) Initiating.
B) Planning.
C) Executing
D) Closing.


7. The project life cycle differs from product life cycle in that the project life cycle :

A) Does not incorporate a methodology.
B) It is different for each industry.
C) Can spawn many projects.
D) Describes project management activities.


8. The High-level project schedule constraints has just been determined.What project management process group are you in ?

A) Initiating
B) Planning
C) Executing
D) Monitoring and Controlling


9. The Project Sponsor has just signed the project charter.What is the NEXT thing to do ?

A) Begin to complete work packages.
B) Validate Scope.
C) Start Integrated change control.
D) Start to create management plans.


10. Your team is involved in the Validate scope process.What process group is the project in ?

A) Planning
B) Closing
C) Executing
D) Monitoring and Controlling.


11. Your team is involved in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. In which process group is the project ?

A) Monitoring and Controlling.
B) Closing.
C) Planning.
D) Executing.


12. You are managing a critical project with frequent changes in requirements. You are in the testing phase of the project and the customer has requested an additional new feature. You have assessed the impact of the change on the triple constraints with your team. What should be your NEXT step?

A) Raise a change request form and send it for approval to change control board
B) Look for alternative options including schedule compression techniques like crashing and fast tracking
C) Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and quality planning
D) Update the project management plans and other project documents including project baselines


13. You have just been assigned as the project manager for a new construction project. The project charter has been handed to you by your sponsor.You have performed the Stakeholder Analysis process and documented the information in the Stakeholder Register. Which of the following processes should be performed next ?

A) Develop Project Management Plan
B) Define Activities
C) Determine Budget
D) Create WBS


14. Your customer calls you on the phone and informs you of a minor change to a requirement on the project . What is the first thing that should be done ?

A)Analyze the request and its consequences to the project.
B)Instruct your engineer to implement this minor change.
C)Ask the customer to provide a formal change request.
D)Note it in the weekly status report.


15. Which of the following BEST describes what a project charter may be used for, when project is in Execution phase?

A)To make sure all team member are rewarded.
B)To help determine if a scope change should be approved
C)To assess the effectiveness of the change control system
D)To make sure all the documentation on the project is completed


16. Project charter is the initial document which is created by inputs such as SOW, business cases, organizational process assets and it contains information which includes?

A) Business Needs, Project purpose, High level Requirements, Assumptions and Constraints, stakeholder list , summary budget, High level risk .
B) Business needs, Project purpose, Detailed requirements, assumptions and constraints stakeholder list, High level risk.
C) Business needs, Project purpose, assumptions and constraints, project management plan, stakeholder list, summary budget, assumptions and constraints
D) Business needs, Project purpose, High level requirements, Work Authorization System , assumptions and constraints.


17. As a project manager you have been asked to select project you can undertake out of three projects available. Out of following factors which you will NOT consider while taking decision :

A) Net Present Value (NPV)
B) Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR)
C) Payback period
D) Law of Diminishing returns


18. Your company manufactures small electric switches. It is introducing new product line of designer switches in various colors. These new products will be offered indefinitely starting with the spring catalog release. Which of the following is TRUE?

A) This is a project as this new product line never been manufactured and sold by this company before.
B) This is an ongoing operation because the company is in the business of manufacturing electric switches. Introducing it in various colors is simply a new twist on an existing process.
C) This is an ongoing operation as the new product line will be sold indefinitely and it is not temporary
D) This is not a project or ongoing operation. This is a new product introduction not affecting ongoing operations.


19. You have completed your project and performing project closure activities. What should you do LAST in this process?

A) Creating final product, service, or result transition
B) Releasing project resources working on the project
C) Updating organizational process assets
D) Accepting deliverable


20. Which of the following is NOT required as input for Close project / phase process.

A) Project Management Plan
B) Accepted Deliverables
C) Work Performance Information
D) Organizational process assets


21. When is the best time to assign a project manager to a project?

A) As soon as a project is authorized.
B) As soon as the scope statement is finalised.
C) As soon as the WBS is completed.
D) At any time during the project life cycle ,depending on requirements.


22. Your project work has generally been finished and you want to commence a solid closing process for the project. What must have been attained to begin this process?

A) The deliverables of the project must have been accepted.
B) The organizational process assets must have been updated.
C) The final product, service or result transition must have been finished.
D) Lessons learned must have been organized into a data base.


23. Processes of configuration management commonly include all of the following except:

A) Configuration identification
B) Configuration status accounting
C) Configuration chartering
D) Configuration audit


24. Which of the following statements about Project Scope and Product Scope is correct ?

A) Project Scope is measured against the Project Management Plan.
B) Product Scope is measured against the Project Management Plan.
C) Project Scope is measured against the Product Requirements.
D) Product Scope is measured against the Project Scope Statement .


25. An element of a Work Breakdown Structure that can be viewed at the lowest level of each branch is referred to as which of the following ?

A) Control Account.
B) Work Breakdown Structure Component
C) Work Package.
D) Task.


26. According to PMBOK guide, a WBS is not directly involved in which of the following processes ?

A) Develop Project Management Plan.
B) Define Activities.
C) Create WBS.
D) Define Scope.


27. A project team member has added graphics and animation to the user data entry screens in order to make the software package more user-friendly, though not included in the project scope . This is an example of :

A) Gold Plating
B) Customer satisfaction
C) Customer Delight
D) Quality enhancements


28. A management control point in a work breakdown structure (WBS) where scope, budget , actual cost and schedule are integrated and compared to the earned value for performance measurement.

A) Control account
B) Chart of accounts
C) Control limit
D) Account limit


29. Which document states what is to be accomplished and what deliverables need to be produced?

A) Project Charter
B) Project Scope Statement
C) Project Management Plan
D) Performance Report


30. The work breakdown structure can be BEST thought of as an effective aid for _______communications.

A) Team.
B) Project Manager.
C) Customer.
D) Stakeholder.


31. Project A and Project B have an expected duration of 48 days each. Their standard deviation is 4 days and 8 days respectively. What can you tell about the two project?

A) Project A is half as likely to complete on time as Project B
B) Project B is half as likely to complete on time as Project A
C) Project A has more risk than Project B
D) Project B has more risk than Project A


32. Project A has an expected duration of 48 days and a standard deviation of 4 days. What is the project duration estimate range?

A) 44 days to 52 days
B) 40 days to 56 days
C) 36 days to 60 days
D) It cannot be determined with the given information


33. Project A has an expected duration of 48 days and a standard deviation of 4 days. Your management wants to know the project duration estimate with a 95% confidence level? What estimate would you give them?

A) 36 days to 60 days
B) 40 days to 56 days
C) 46 days to 50 days
D) 36 days to 56 days


34. When should the project schedule be developed?

A) As early into the project as possible. A committed schedule should be there before any initiating or planning processes are applied for the project.
B) During initiating. The definite project schedule should be developed concurrently with the project contract (if applicable) and the project charter.
C) Scheduling should be avoided. Agile approaches with a backlog and a weekly to 4-weekly meeting cycle are sufficient for modern project management.
D) When most planning processes from time, scope, and procurement management have been finished. These will then be iterated when necessary.


35. What would you as a project manager focus on while crashing a schedule ?

A) Accelerating the non critical path tasks.
B) Accelerating as many tasks as possible.
C) Accelerating the tasks on the critical path.
D) Skipping certain tasks.


36. Which is typically not specified in a document referred to as activity attributes?

A) The person executing the work in a schedule activity
B) Schedule activity identifiers, codes and descriptions
C) Schedule activity predecessors and successors
D) The cost baseline assigned to the schedule activity


37. Your project has a CV of -100. This means:

A) Your project is under budget.
B) Your SPI is also negative.
C) Your project is above budget .
D) CV cannot be negative and there must be an error in the calculation .


38. Your sponsor has asked you to give him a new estimate of the cost at the end of the project. This is because during the meeting it was found that many things have gone wrong until now . It is expected, that from now on things will progress normally. Which formula will you use to create the expected total cost of the project?



39. You are performing Earned Value Management on your project. The Cost Baseline in Earned Value Management is also a part of:

A) Cost Estimating Baseline
B) Performance Baseline
C) Cost Measurement Baseline
D) Budget Baseline


40. All of the following are inputs / outputs to the process of Control Costs except :

A) Project Funding Requirements
B) Project Management Plan
C) Work Performance Information
D) Reserve Analysis


41. In your project, you have monitored the status of the project to update the project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline. Which of the following is an output of the Control Costs process?

A) Basis of estimates
B) Cost forecasts
C) Cost change control system
D) Work performance data


42. The value of work actually accomplished is also known as:

A) Planned Value
B) Earned Value
C) Actual Cost
D) Budgeted Cost for Work Scheduled (BCWS)


43. The processes of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called :

A) Perform Quality Assurance
B) Perform Quality Control
C) Plan Quality
D) Perform Quality Review


44. What is the purpose of control limits?

A) Identifying “rule of seven” patterns in control charts.
B) Increasing process quality from 3? to 6?.
C) Specifying the range of acceptable results.
D) Identifying whether the process is in control or not.


45. A Pareto chart helps focusing on..

A) …causes which create a repeating and often seasonal pattern of problems.
B) …the minority of causes, which create the majority of problems and defects.
C) …special causes of process variations which should be investigated to avoid type 1 errors.
D) …the standard deviation of process variation which should not be investigated.


46. When you perform quality assurance in your project, which technique could you typically use?

A) Code review
B) Quality audit
C) Inspection
D) Scope verification


47. Checklists,fishbone diagrams , and Pareto charts are ALL examples of:

A) Tools used to define scope.
B) Tools used in quality management.
C) Tools used in team performance assessments.
D) Parts of a project management plan.


48. If the probability of one event occuring does not affect the probability of another event occuring, the events are :

A) False events.
B) Mutually exclusive.
C) Statistically independent.
D) Just-in-time.


49. A control chart helps the project manager:

A) Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B) Focus on stimulating thinking.
C) Explore a desired future outcome.
D) Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.


50. Which of the following subsidiary plans defines how project team members are released from the project?

A) Human Resource Plan
B) Staffing Management Plan
C) Requirement Management Plan
D) They are given a pink piece of paper.


51. Your project team is on its way to finish work on the project, while you have the impression that a staff member is already negotiating the next assignment in another project. You are afraid that the person may come under pressure to start working on the other job before she has finished her work for your project. Her task is very complex, and it would be hard for someone else to take up the partial results and finish them. What action is most likely to resolve the situation?

A) Have a private meeting with the person and discuss your observations. Make the person aware of the contract and of the legal consequences of unfinished work.
B) Have a meeting with the entire team and discuss the person’s expected early leave. Use team dynamics to buy in the commitment from the person to finish work orderly.
C) Use your network of project managers to find another assignment for the person which allows for smooth transition and does not conflict with your needs.
D) Ignore your observations and let the team member do her job. It is quite uncommon that staff drops work for a project before it is completely finished.


52. Project performance appraisals are different from team performance assessments in that project performance appraisals focus on :

A) How an individual team member is performing on the project.
B) An evaluation of the project team’s effectiveness.
C) A team building effort.
D) Reducing the staff turnover rate.


53. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution ?

A) Forcing
B) Smoothing
C) Compromise
D) Problem Solving


54. A project has several teams.Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has caused Team D to have to crash the critical path several times . As the team leader for Team D, you should meet with :

A) The leader of team C.
B) The project manager.
C) The project manager and management.
D) The project manager and the leader of team C.


55. Co-location is a technique which means :

A) Using offshore team members.
B) Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team.
C) Requiring team members to work overseas.
D) Performing a project at various locations.


56. You are the manager of a project for a company that is known to make heavy use of extrinsic motivators in order to boost morale and team performance. What does that mean? The motivators used…

A)…are tailored to the needs of individual team members.
B)…are incentives such as rewards, gifts, or money.
C)…are derived from within individual team members.
D)…include the improvement of hygiene factors of the work environment.


57. While working on the project, you set realistic (and challenging) targets. This is because you know that if extra time is provided, “Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion.” This is also referred to as:

A) Herzberg’s Motivation Theory
B) Learning Curve Theory
C) Theory Y
D) Parkinson’s law


58. When your objective is to get a lasting win-win solution to a problem, which conflict resolution technique should you use?

A) Collaborate or Problem Solving
B) Smooth or Accommodate
C) Withdraw or Avoid
D) Compromise or Reconcile


59. You are the project manager of a project team that includes several new recruits. You notice that most of the team members possess “I am right mentality” and put forth their own ideas for consideration. In this context, your team is in which of the following stages of group development?

A) Forming
B) Storming
C) Conflicting


60. Which of the following processes is involved in making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner ?

A) Control Communications
B) Manage stakeholder engagement.
C) Manage Communications.
D) Plan Communications Management.


61. What is the best way to finish a formal customer presentation that will promote effective communication ?

A) Taking minutes of the meeting .
B) Offering the customer a cup of coffee.
C) Asking the customer if they have any questions.
D) Summarizing and recapping.


62. What percentage of their time do project managers spend communicating ?

A) At least 25%.
B) No more than 75%.
C) 80%
D) 90%.


63. You are on a team that has five members including you . How many communication channnels do you personally have ?

A) 5
B) 4
C) 10
D) 12


64. You are managing a telecommunication project , and 10 telecom engineers report to you .Due to a change in scope requested by your customer, you need to add more team members, and you decide to hire two more engineers. How many communication channnels will be added by hiring these engineers?

A) 21
B) 23
C) 66
D) 78


65. Which of the following aspects of leadership is MOST important for a project manager ?

A) Communication
B) Team Building
C) Technical expertise
D) Project control


66. You are the project manager with seven team members. One more member will be joining the team after a week. What will be the number of communication channels once the new member joins your team?

A) 28
B) 21
C) 18
D) 36


67. You have a project team of forty people colocated at Houston, Texas. Email and notes are frequently used to communicate among team members. These are examples of which type of communication?

A) Written Formal
B) Written Informal
C) Oral Formal
D) Oral Informal


68. Work performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents intended to generate decisions or raise issues, actions, or awareness. Which of the following is NOT a common format for work performance reports?

A) S-curves
B) Control charts
C) Tables
D) Histograms


69. Who is a risk owner?

A) The person who is responsible for ensuring that a risk is identified and assessed, risk response actions are determined, and a risk action owner is assigned for each risk action.
B) The person who is responsible for carrying out the approved risk actions for responding to a given risk.
C) The person who is responsible for ensuring that a response strategy for a risk is selected and implemented, risk response actions are determined, and a risk action owner is assigned for each risk action.
D) The person who is responsible for monitoring the activities of risk management on a project.


70. During the festive season you have decided to go out with your family and visit the sites of various festivities. But you are expecting that the main roads would be full of traffic and you do not want to risk being caught in long traffic jams. So you avoid the main roads and take detours through the lesser known roads to avoid traffic. But these roads have not been maintained for a long time and hence you run the risk of damaging your car as these roads have uneven surfacing and a large number of potholes. This is a typical example of :

A) Progressive Risk Planning
B) Watchlist
C) Risk Ownership
D) Secondary Risks


71. A new Risk is identified on your project. Which document needs to be updated ?

A) Risk Register.
B) Work Breakdown Structure(WBS)
C) Risk Management Plan.
D) Scope Statement.


72. In your new project the objective is to develop a new drug. After doing financial analysis, your finance manager provided you with these statistics:
30% probability of success with benefits of $700,000
70% probability of failure with loss of $300,000
Based on this information, you:

A) Suggest that the project should proceed.
B) Suggest that the project should be stopped.
C) Communicate to your senior management that you cannot take a decision whether to proceed with the project or not.
D) Start working on the project and ask your finance manager for additional information.


73. When doing risk response planning, you have come to know that the project involves use of new technology which is not tested properly. The risk is so high that your sponsor decides to terminate the project. This management decision to terminate the project is an example of:

A) Terminate risk
B) Avoid risk
C) Mitigate risk
D) Close Project


74. When your company buys computers from Dell, you also pay extra for a three year warranty which ensures that any manufacturing defects will be taken care of by Dell. The risk response strategy used is:

A) Exploit
B) Avoid
C) Mitigate
D) Transfer


75. In your project, you implemented a risk response and hired an additional skilled technical resource that can help in testing your application. However, you are worried that the technical resource may leave – this new risk can also be called:

A) Secondary risk
B) Acceptance risk
C) Fallback Plan
D) Workaround


76. What is the difference between Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve ?

A) Contingency Reserve address known knowns, whereas Management Reserve address known unknowns.
B) Contingency and Management Reserve both address known unknowns and could be considered same.
C) Contingency Reserve address known unknowns, whereas Management Reserve address unknown unknowns.
D) Contingency Reserve are managed by senior management, whereas Management Reserves are managed by Project Manager.


77. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:

A) The team rank the project risks.
B) The project manager estimate the project.
C) The team schedule the project.
D) Management know how other project managers will act on the project.


78. Which of the following is a chief characteristic of Delphi technique?

A) Extrapolation from historical records from previous projects.
B) Expert Opinion
C) Analytical Hierarchy process.
D) Bottom up approach


79. How does risk affect a project?

A) It is an uncertain event that if it occurs has a positive or negative effect on atleast one project objective.
B) It is a certain event that will have a negative effect on project.
C) It can cause a change in the number of resource for the project, but not the cost.
D) It can cause a change in the project schedule, but not the project scope.


80. A particular item that is needed for the project is not available in the organisation.Considering this, what would you suggest ?

A) Conducting a make-or-buy analysis.
B) Conducting procurement negotiations.
C) Conducting bidder conferences.
D) Creating a request for proposal (RFP )


81. In which type of contract is the seller reimbursed for performing the contract work and receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project cost ?

A) Cost plus award fee contract
B) Lump-sum contract
C) Cost plus fixed fee contract
D) Cost plus incentive fee contract


82. From which of the following is the procurement statement of work developed ?

A) Project scope statement and OBS
B) WBS and WBS dictionary .
C) Project scope statement , WBS and WBS dictionary .
D) WBS and OBS.


83. According to the best practices in Project Management , a project manager should be involved in the Procurement in the following manner :

A) Project manager should not be involved in Procurements , this is best left to the Purchase department.
B) A Project Manager should completely handle the procurements as the Purchase department are not aware of the implications in the project.
C) A project manager should create the RFP and specifications and be involved in the procurement process and be familiar with the contracts and understand their implications on the project
D) A project manager should create the RFP and specifications and leave the rest of the procurement process to the purchase cell .


84. Bidder conference can have a negative effect on the project if the project manager does NOT remember to make sure:

A) All questions and answers are put in writing and sent to all sellers .
B) All sellers get answers to their questions only.
C) To hold separate meetings with each bidder to ensure the project team receives proprietary data.
D) There is room in the meeting for all sellers.


85. Which of the following should a procurement audit include ?

A) A complete list of the contract drawings.
B) The customer’s evaluation of the work .
C) The team’s evaluation of the contract type selected.
D) Evaluations of what went right and wrong .


86. In a Fixed Price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is :

A) Unknown.
B) Part of the negotiation involoved in paying every invoice.
C) Applied as a line item to every invoice.
D) Determined with the other party at the end of the project.


87. In which of the following contract types does the seller have the most cost risk ?

A) Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)
B) Time and Material (T&M)
C) Cost plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
D) Cost plus Award Fee (CPAF)


88. What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?

A) Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B) Negotiate a price under the seller’s estimate.
C) Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D) Ensure that an effective communication management plan is established.


89. The primary objective of contract negotiations is to :

A) Get the most from the other side.
B) Protect the relationship.
C) Get the highest monetary return.
D) Define objectives and stick to them .


90. You have just signed a contract with a seller. Due to funding issues, your management decides to terminate the contract. For this purpose, you will:

A) Go back to procurement planning to determine what to procure and when.
B) Choose from other potential sellers.
C) Follow procedures as listed in contract closure.
D) Initiate procedures listed in contract change control system to define the process by which the contract may be identified.


91. You will use the Conduct Procurements process to receive bids or proposals and apply the selection criteria for selecting a provider. Which of the following tools and techniques can be used for the Conduct Procurements process?

A) Procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, and independent estimates
B) Procurement negotiations, contract types, and bidder conferences
C) Procurement negotiations, make-or-buy analysis, and independent estimates
D) Performance reporting, advertising, and independent estimates


92. In your project, you use a specific set of processes and automation tools to manage contract and procurement documentation. This is referred to as:

A) Claims administration
B) Project documents
C) Records management system
D) Procurement document package


93. You are planning to award a contract and are evaluating sellers, using criteria like management approach, technical approach, life-cycle cost, and production capacity and interest. These criteria are called:

A) Screening criteria
B) Source selection criteria
C) Evaluation criteria
D) Contract selection methods


94. You work for Paper mill which is undertaking a project in one of its manufacturing units for updating and verifying the actual stocks against the available records. The head of the personnel and administration department calls you and wishes to know the details of your project. He has not been included in the stakeholder register . what should be the course of action ?

A) Do not meet him , your project does not concern his department
B) Meet him and assess his interest as he may have enough power to influence other key stakeholders
C) Send him a copy of the progress report of the project
D) Invite him to the weekly status meeting


95. As a project manager, you know that stakeholders can impact project success. To manage stakeholder expectations is an important priority. Out of the following which statement on project stakeholders is NOT correct?

A) For successful completion of project, ignore negative stakeholders.
B) Stakeholders have varying levels of responsibility and authority when participating on a project and these can impact project life cycle.
C) Some key stakeholders include project manager, project team, operations manager, customer and sponsor.
D) Stakeholders often have very different or conflicting objectives and their expectations are difficult to manage.


96. At the end of an internal project, you find several key stakeholders including the sponsor reluctant to finally accept all deliverables and then close the project. What should NOT be your next step in this situation?

A) Identify any open issues and get them solved. Then be firm on formal closure.
B) Formally close the project. Stakeholders will find a way by themselves to sort things out.
C) Identify and openly discuss personal rationales underlying the reluctance.
D) Invite earnest feedback from all sides and try to identify misunderstandings.


97. The role of each stakeholder is determined by :

A) The stakeholder and the sponsor .
B) The project manager and the sponsor.
C) The team and the project manager.
D) The project manager and the stakeholder .


98. Which project document is used for documenting and monitoring elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders?

A) Dispute log
B) Issue log
C) Change log
D) Problem log


99. You are working on a project that your company recently won through a bidding process. It is still very early in the project, but the project charter is complete and you are now creating the stakeholder register. Which of the following would be useful to help you identity the project stakeholders:

A) Procurement statement of work
B) Procurement documents
C) Business case
D) Project management plan


100. The project manager needs to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle. Analytical techniques can be used to identify the current and desired engagement levels of each stakeholder. This information is captured in:

A) Stakeholder analysis matrix
B) Analytical forecasts
C) Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix
D) Stakeholder register


Answer Explanation/Reference
1. B. The PMBok Guide is generally recognized as a project management framework , not as a methodology.
2. D. A key role of the project manager is to guide the project team to success while balancing competing project constraints.
3. C. A projectized organisation offers the greatest control over project resources for the project manager.
4. D. The responsibility to lead the annual performance of your team lies with the functional manager of the team. You will be asked to give input, but you are not leading this process.
5. D. Portfolios are collection of projects, programs ,subportfolios and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic business objectives. The projects and programs of Portfolios may not necessarily be interdependent or directly related .
6. C. During Project execution ,work is done to produce the product of the project.
7. B. The project life cycle does incorporate a methodology–for doing the work. It is the product life cycle that spawns many projects. Project management activities are described in the project management process. The project life cycle is different for each industry, so that is the correct answer.
8. A. High-level constraints are identified in the project charter, which is created during project initiating.
9. D. The project charter is created during project initiating. Completing work packages is done during project executing. Validating scope and Perform Integrated Change Control are done during project Monitoring and Controlling. Starting to create management plans is the best choice, as it is part of project planning.
10. D. Validate Scope is a process of project monitoring and controlling.
11. C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis occurs in project planning.
12. A. Once changes has been assessed and deemed to be taken, it should go for Perform Integrated change control process for approval.
13. A. According to the scenario,you have just completed the project initiation phase,and in particular you have completed the Identify Stakeholders process. You should now perform the Develop Project Management Plan process, which comes after Identify Stakeholders.
14. C. All changes on a project must be documented and then formally approved via the Perform Integrated Change Control Process.
15. B. One of the ways to check if a change should be approved is to determine whether the work falls within the project charter. If not it should be rejected assigned to a more appropriate project or addressed as a project of its own. Overall project execution should fall under guidelines of project charter.
16. A. Project charter contains information regarding business need and justification, project purpose, assumptions and constraints, High level requirements, high level risk, summary budget. As it is the initial document of the project, project charter cannot contain the detailed documents such as Detailed Requirements document and Project Scope Statement which are created at later stages in the project. Work authorization system is collection of formal procedures that defines how work will be authorized and is part of enterprise environmental factors, it can be input to the project charter and need not be part of project charter.
17. D. The law of diminishing returns has nothing to do with choosing between projects. Selection of projects should be based on some formal evaluation of all projects available.
18. A. This is a project. The product line is new, which implies this is a new product and hasn’t been done before. You can discern a definite start and end date by the fact given that the new switches must be ready by the spring catalog release.
19. B. The project manager needs resources such as people, equipment etc. for closure activities as well, so that’s why this should be the last step. Final product, service, or result transition, organizational process assets updates are outputs of the Close Project or Phase and accepted deliverables are its inputs which are dealt with during the closure project/ phase.
20. C. Work Performance information is required as input for Monitor and control project work. It is collection of data from various controlling processes and provides foundation of decisions taken in projects. The other 3 options (A, B & D) are required as inputs to close project/ phase process.
21. A. In general, a project manager should be identified and assigned as early in the project as possible.
22. A. Acceptance of deliverables should happen before closing the project .
23. C. Configuration Management activities includes Configuration Identification, Configuration status accounting and Configuration verfication and Audit.
24. A.
25. C. Work Package is at the lowest level of WBS. Reference: PMBok Guide 5th edition ,page126
26. D. The Define Scope process must be completed before the Create WBS process can be started .Creates WBS creates the WBS itself.Define Activities takes the WBS as an input and decomposes it into activities. Develop Project Management Plan process carries out scope planning , which documents how the WBS will be created and defined.
27. A. Gold plating is giving the customer something that he did not ask for, something that wasn’t scoped, and often something that the he may not want.
28. A. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 132.
29. B. Project scope statement documents what is to be accomplished and what deliverables are to be produced. This document is a part of the project scope baseline.
30. D. The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices.
31. D. Project B has more risk than Project A.More standard deviation indicates more uncertainty or risk.
32. A. Duration estimate ‘range’ is considered to be PERT estimate plus/minus one standard deviation.
33. B. 95% confidence level means PERT estimate plus/minus two standard deviations. 48 plus/minus 2*4 = 40 days to 56 days.
34. D. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 174.
35. C. Accelerating tasks on the non-critical path would not impact the project schedule as the critical path tasks form the longest duration path in a project network of tasks.
36. D. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 153.
37. C. CV=EV-AC.Therefore a negative Cost Variance means that you have spent more Actual cost than you have Earned Value.
38. C. The sponsor has asked you to calculate the Estimate at Completion (EAC).Based on the information in the scenario we learn that the past variances are not typical because things should be normal going forward from here. Hence we will use the EAC formula, which is used when past variances will not happen again. We will calculate the actual cost to date plus remaining budget. (BAC – EV is the remaining budget.)
39. B. A Cost Baseline is a part of the Performance Baseline. The Performance Baseline is an approved plan for the project work to which the project execution is compared, and deviations are measured for management control. The Performance Baseline typically integrates the scope, schedule and cost parameters of a project.
40. D. Reserve analysis is a techinque in Control Costs and not the input/output.
41. B. Control Costs is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline. ‘Cost forecasts’ is one of the outputs obtained from this process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide – Fifth Edition, page 215 (figure 7-10)
42. B. Earned Value or (Budgeted Costs for Work Performed) is the Physical work actually accomplished,including estimated value of this work.
43. A. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 227.
44. D. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 238.
45. B. Reference :PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 237.
46. B. References: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, pages 247.
47. B. Checklists, fishbone diagrams, and Pareto charts are used in the quality management process.
48. B. Just-in-time refers to inventory levels. Two events occuring in the same trial are true events. By definition, two events that are mutually exclusive cannot happen on the same trial. Statistical independence refers to two events not being linked.
49. D. Focusing on the most critical issues to improve quality relates to Pareto charts. Stimulating thinking and exploring a desired future outcome relate to fishbone diagrams. Only determining if a process is functioning within set limits relates to control charts.
50. B. Staffing Management Plan sets forth how project team members are acquired and released from the project team .
51. C. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 266.
52. A. Team performance assessments evaluate the project team’s effectiveness as a whole. Project performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing on the project.
53. D. Problem solving (also referred to as collaborating) normally takes more time, but it gets buy-in from everyone, generating a more lasting solution.
54. D. Those involved in the problem should resolve the problem. Having had to crash the critical path several times implies that team D has already tried to deal with this problem. In this case, the two team leaders need to meet. The extent of this situation requires the project manager’s involvement as well.
55. B. Co-location is a technique used for team building where you place many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team.
56. B. Reference: Project Management JumpStart by Kim Heldman, page 222,
57. D. Parkinson’s law states that work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion or in brief, “work expands to fill the time available.”
58. A. Usually, the best way to resolve conflicts is to face the conflict directly with a cooperative attitude and an open dialogue to work through disagreements resulting in consensus and commitment.Results in a Win-Win outcome.
59. B. Tuckman described five stages of team development. Teams usually go through the stages in order, but it is possible for teams to skip a stage or get stuck in, or revert to a previous stage.
60. C. Making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner is the purpose of the Manage Communications.
61. D. Taking Minutes of meeting is not a good way to wind up a meeting . Minutes of the meeting should be taken during the meeting and not after the meeting .Asking the customer if they have any question is a part of effective communication but should be done only after you have wrap up the meeting by giving summary of what has been discussed.
62. D. According to Kerzner , project managers spend 90%of their time communicating.
63. B. The question is trying to trick you into applying the communication channel formula but it isn’t needed. Since the team has five members including you , this means you are personally communicating with four other members on the team.
64. B. As 10 engineers reported to you before the recruitment exercise,the total team size was 11 and the number of communication channels was 11*10/2=55. After the recruitment of two engineers , the new team size is 13 and the communication channels are now 13*12/2=78.The additional communication channels therefore total 78-55=23.
65. A. As project managers can spend 90 percent of their time communicating, the correct choice must be communication.
66. D. There will be 9 people in your team (this includes 8 team members and you, the project manager). So, the number of communication channels = 9 x (9 – 1) / 2 = 9×8/2 = 36.
67. B. E-mails, notes, etc., are examples of written informal type of communication.
68. B. Common formats for work performance reports include bar charts, S-curves, histograms, and tables. Control charts are a tool used in the Control Quality process.
69. C. The risk owner is the person who is responsible for ensuring that an appropriate response strategy is selected and implemented, and for determining risk actions to implement the chosen strategy, with each risk action assigned to a single risk action owner.
70. D. Seconary Risks are risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
71. A. When a new risk is identified, the risk register must be updated. The risk management plan is the framework for performing risk processes and does not contain a list of identified risks.
72. C. Expected Monetary Value of the project = Expected Monetary Value of success (0.30 x $700,000) + Expected Monetary value of Failure (0.70 x (- $300,000)]
= $210,000 – $210,000 = 0
Since the Expected Monetary Value is “0”, you cannot take a decision whether to continue with the project or not.
73. B. Avoid. Risk avoidance involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely.The most radical avoidance strategy is to shut down the project entirely.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide – Fifth Edition, page 344
74. D. Transfer. Risk transference is a risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response… Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds,warranties, guarantees, etc.
75. A. A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called Secondary Risk.After implementing your risk response (i.e. hiring an additional resource), a new risk arises (i.e. the hired resource may leave). This is an example of Secondary risk.
76. C. Management reserves address unknown unknowns and are managed by senior management. Contingency reserves address known unknowns and are managed by the project manager.
77. A. If you know the tolerances of the stakeholders, you can determine how they might react to different situations and risk events. You use this information to help assign levels of risk on each work package or activity.
78. B. The Delphi technique uses experts and builds consensus; therefore, expert opinion is the chief characteristic.
79. A. By definition, risk is the uncertainty of some aspect of the project.
80. A. The project team should first conduct a make-or-buy analysis to determine if the item can be produced in-house or it is more viable to procure it.
81. C. In a cost plus fixed fee contract , the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs.
82. C. The procurement statement of work is developed from the project scope baseline that includes the scope statement , WBS and the WBS dictionary .
83. C. Project Manager should provide inputs on Scope of work to the Purchase Department to be included in the Contract.
84. A. The procurement process is more formal and thus requires more formal processes. Ensuring all bidders receive the same information in writing eliminates the problem of bias in presenting the opportunity.
85. D. A procurement audit identifies what went right and wrong for the purposes of creating historical records and improving future performance.
86. A. The fee or profit is known to the seller, but this question is asked from the buyer’s perspective. The buyer does not know what profit the seller included in the contract.
87. A. In a fixed price contract, any cost coverages are borne by the seller. In other contract types, some or all of the costs over planned are shared or borne by the buyer.
88. A. Although risk identification and an effective communications management plan are good ideas, but not key objectives of contract negotiation. Negotiations should be win/win, so negotiating a price below the seller’s estimate is not the best choice. A fair and equitable price will help to create a good working atmosphere. Otherwise, you will pay later, through change orders.
89. B. As a project manager, you want to develop a relationship during negotiations that will last throughout the project.
90. C. Early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure that can result from a mutual agreement of both parties, from the default of one party, or for convenience of the buyer if provided for in the contract.
91. A. Procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, advertising, and independent estimates are some of the tools and techniques used in the Conduct Procurements process.
92. C. Records management system is used as a tool in the Control Procurements and the Close Procurements processes.
93. B. Source selection criteria are often included as part of the procurement solicitation documents. Such criteria are developed and used to rate or score seller proposals, and can be objective or subjective. Other selection criteria can be identified and documented to support an assessment for more complex products, services, or results. Some examples are: understanding of need, overall or life-cycle cost, technical capability, risk, management approach, technical approach, technical approach,
etc.Reference: PMBOK® Guide – Fifth Edition, page 368
94. B. Stakeholder Analysis can be done anytime in project based on the situation and Stakeholder Register should be updated .
95. A. For the success of the project ,we cannot ignore negative stakeholders because if ignored, they can hurt the project’s progress. For the stakeholders with positive expectations from the project, their interests are best served by helping the project succeed. But overlooking negative stakeholders can result in an increased likelihood of failure.
96. B. Reference: PMBOK® Guide 5th Edition, page 101.
97. D. The role of each stakeholder is determined by the project manager and the stakeholder. It is important that stakeholders have input into what they will be contributing to the project. The role of the project manager is NOT to tell people what to do.
98. B. Issue log is a project document used to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders.Reference: PMBOK® – Guide Fifth Edition, page 544
99. B. Since this is a contract that was awarded to your company, the Procurement Documents (e.g., RFP) will have information about who some of the project stakeholders are. This would be a good starting place to gather information about key stakeholders and their respective roles in the project.
100. C. The Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix is used to document current and desired engagement levels of project stakeholders.